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Super TET Primary 2026 Mock Test 1 – Online Test | www.tetaspirant.com

Super TET Primary 2026 Mock Test 1 – Online Test | www.tetaspirant.com

 

Super TET Primary 2026 Mock Test 1 – Online Test

Welcome to www.tetaspirant.com! Start your preparation for the Super TET Primary 2026 examination with our first online mock test.

The Super TET Primary Mock Test 1 is designed for candidates preparing for the Primary Teacher Recruitment Examination. Practise important questions, test your knowledge, improve your accuracy, and evaluate your preparation.

At TET Aspirant, our goal is to help teaching aspirants prepare effectively through online mock tests and practice questions.

Super TET Primary 2026 Mock Test 1 – Details
Exam Name: Super TET Primary 2026
Mock Test Number: 1
Total Mock Tests: 50
Test Mode: Online
Website: www.tetaspirant.com
Target: Primary Teacher Aspirants

Subjects for Super TET Primary Preparation

Child Development and Pedagogy
Hindi Language
English Language
Mathematics
Environmental Studies
General Knowledge
Teaching Aptitude
Reasoning Ability
Information Technology

Why Attempt Super TET Mock Test 1?

Practise important exam-oriented questions.
Understand different question patterns.
Improve your speed and accuracy.
Identify your weak subjects.
Check your preparation level.
Build confidence for the examination.

Start Super TET Primary Mock Test 1

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UP Super TET Primary – Full-Length Mock Test (120 Questions)

This paper follows the revised UP Super TET Primary (Classes 1–5) syllabus and subject-wise question distribution for 2026, rather than the older 150-question pattern.

  1. Official examination pattern
Subject Questions Marks
General Knowledge & Current Affairs 25 75
Logical Reasoning 5 15
Hindi, English & Sanskrit 30 90
Science 8 24
Mathematics 16 48
Environment & Social Studies 8 24
Teaching Skills 8 24
Child Psychology 8 24
Information Technology 4 12
Life Skills, Management & Attitude 8 24
Total 120 360
  • Duration: 120 minutes.
  • Correct answer: +3 marks.
  • Incorrect or multiple answers: −1 mark.
  • Unattempted question: 0 marks.
  • Four options per question; one most appropriate answer.
  • Question paper language: Hindi and English.

Prep Images

+1

Difficulty: Moderate to difficult. Academic subjects are based on the prescribed Class 12 level, while professional subjects follow D.El.Ed-level content.

  1. Full-length question paper

UP SUPER TET PRIMARY

FULL MOCK TEST – SET 01

120 MCQs | 360 Marks | 120 Minutes

Instructions

  1. Attempt all sections.
  2. Select one correct option.
  3. Avoid random guessing because of negative marking.
  4. Check the answer key only after completing the paper.

Section A – General Knowledge & Current Affairs

25 QUESTIONS · 75 MARKS

Q1. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?

  1. Lord Mountbatten
  2. C. Rajagopalachari
  3. Lord Wavell
  4. Warren Hastings

Q2. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

  1. 15 August 1947
  2. 26 November 1949
  3. 26 January 1950
  4. 2 October 1949

Q3. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  4. Sardar Patel

Q4. Which is the largest state of India by area?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Uttar Pradesh

Q5. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:

  1. Geneva
  2. Paris
  3. New York
  4. London

Q6. Who wrote the book Discovery of India?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Rabindranath Tagore
  4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q7. Which river is known as the Dakshin Ganga?

  1. Krishna
  2. Kaveri
  3. Godavari
  4. Narmada

Q8. The First Battle of Panipat was fought in:

  1. 1526
  2. 1556
  3. 1761
  4. 1857

Q9. Who founded the Arya Samaj?

  1. Swami Vivekananda
  2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
  4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Q10. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Education?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 21A
  3. Article 32
  4. Article 45

Q11. The Panchayati Raj system was first introduced in which state?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Bihar
  4. Gujarat

Q12. Which is the highest civilian award in India?

  1. Padma Shri
  2. Padma Bhushan
  3. Bharat Ratna
  4. Padma Vibhushan

Q13. Who is known as the Iron Man of India?

  1. Bhagat Singh
  2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q14. Which Indian classical dance form originated in Uttar Pradesh?

  1. Kathak
  2. Bharatanatyam
  3. Kuchipudi
  4. Odissi

Q15. The headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India is located in:

  1. New Delhi
  2. Kolkata
  3. Mumbai
  4. Chennai

Q16. Which city is situated on the banks of the river Gomti?

  1. Agra
  2. Lucknow
  3. Kanpur
  4. Jhansi

Q17. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?

  1. Pratibha Patil
  2. Sarojini Naidu
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. Sucheta Kripalani

Q18. Which movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942?

  1. Non-Cooperation Movement
  2. Civil Disobedience Movement
  3. Quit India Movement
  4. Swadeshi Movement

Q19. Which is the smallest continent?

  1. Europe
  2. Australia
  3. Antarctica
  4. South America

Q20. The headquarters of UNESCO is in:

  1. Rome
  2. Paris
  3. New York
  4. Geneva

Q21. Which crop is known as a Kharif crop?

  1. Wheat
  2. Gram
  3. Mustard
  4. Rice

Q22. Who composed India’s national anthem?

  1. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
  2. Rabindranath Tagore
  3. Muhammad Iqbal
  4. Sarojini Naidu

Q23. Which institution is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures in India?

  1. UPSC
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Election Commission of India
  4. NITI Aayog

Q24. Dudhwa National Park is located in:

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Rajasthan

Q25. The International Yoga Day is celebrated on:

  1. 5 June
  2. 21 June
  3. 11 July
  4. 2 October

Section B – Logical Reasoning

5 QUESTIONS · 15 MARKS

Q26. Find the next number:

3, 6, 12, 24, 48, __

  1. 72
  2. 84
  3. 96
  4. 108

Q27. Book is related to Reading in the same way as Food is related to:

  1. Cooking
  2. Eating
  3. Buying
  4. Selling

Q28. If SCHOOL is coded as TDIPPM, then TEACHER will be coded as:

  1. UFBDIFS
  2. UFBCHFS
  3. VFBDFIS
  4. UFBDHFS

Q29. A man faces north. He turns right, then turns right again. Which direction is he facing now?

  1. North
  2. South
  3. East
  4. West

Q30. Find the odd one out:

  1. 16
  2. 25
  3. 36
  4. 48

Section C – Hindi, English & Sanskrit

30 QUESTIONS · 90 MARKS

Part 1 – Hindi (Q31–Q46)

Q31. ‘विद्यालय’ शब्द में कौन-सी संधि है?

  1. गुण संधि
  2. दीर्घ संधि
  3. वृद्धि संधि
  4. यण संधि

Q32. ‘नीलकमल’ में कौन-सा समास है?

  1. द्वंद्व
  2. बहुव्रीहि
  3. कर्मधारय
  4. अव्ययीभाव

Q33. ‘आँख का तारा’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

  1. बहुत क्रोधित होना
  2. अत्यंत प्रिय होना
  3. दुखी होना
  4. धोखा देना

Q34. ‘उत्थान’ का विलोम शब्द है:

  1. विकास
  2. पतन
  3. उन्नति
  4. प्रगति

Q35. ‘अग्नि’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है:

  1. अनल
  2. नीर
  3. पवन
  4. गगन

Q36. ‘जो पढ़ा-लिखा न हो’ के लिए एक शब्द है:

  1. विद्वान
  2. साक्षर
  3. निरक्षर
  4. शिक्षित

Q37. ‘राम ने फल खाया।’ इस वाक्य में कौन-सा कारक है?

  1. अपादान
  2. कर्ता
  3. करण
  4. संप्रदान

Q38. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी कौन-सी है?

  1. उज्जवल
  2. उज्ज्वल
  3. उज्वल
  4. उज्जवल्ल

Q39. ‘सुंदरता’ शब्द में कौन-सा प्रत्यय है?

  1. सु
  2. दर
  3. ता
  4. रता

Q40. ‘कमल’ का पर्यायवाची है:

  1. पंकज
  2. पावक
  3. पवन
  4. नयन

Q41. ‘दाँत खट्टे करना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

  1. भोजन करना
  2. बुरी तरह पराजित करना
  3. प्रसन्न करना
  4. डर जाना

Q42. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द तत्सम है?

  1. आग
  2. आँख
  3. अग्नि
  4. दूध

Q43. ‘वह विद्यालय जाता है।’ वाक्य का काल है:

  1. भूतकाल
  2. वर्तमान काल
  3. भविष्यत् काल
  4. अपूर्ण भूतकाल

Q44. ‘राम और श्याम खेल रहे हैं।’ इस वाक्य में ‘और’ कौन-सा शब्द है?

  1. संज्ञा
  2. सर्वनाम
  3. समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय
  4. विशेषण

Q45. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द स्त्रीलिंग है?

  1. पर्वत
  2. पुस्तक
  3. कमरा
  4. वृक्ष

Q46. भाषा शिक्षण में कहानी सुनाने का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?

  1. बच्चों को चुप रखना
  2. भाषा कौशल और कल्पनाशक्ति का विकास
  3. केवल परीक्षा की तैयारी
  4. समय व्यतीत करना

Part 2 – English (Q47–Q53)

Q47. Choose the correct synonym of “Abundant”.

  1. Scarce
  2. Plentiful
  3. Little
  4. Empty

Q48. Choose the antonym of “Ancient”.

  1. Old
  2. Historic
  3. Modern
  4. Traditional

Q49. Fill in the blank:

Neither Ram nor his friends _____ present.

  1. is
  2. are
  3. was
  4. has

Q50. Identify the adverb in the sentence:

“She sings beautifully.”

  1. She
  2. Sings
  3. Beautifully
  4. None

Q51. Choose the correct passive voice:

“Ram writes a letter.”

  1. A letter was written by Ram.
  2. A letter is written by Ram.
  3. A letter has written by Ram.
  4. A letter is being written by Ram.

Q52. Choose the correct article:

He is _____ honest man.

  1. a
  2. an
  3. the
  4. no article

Q53. The main purpose of teaching English at the primary level is:

  1. Memorising grammar rules only
  2. Developing communication skills
  3. Learning difficult vocabulary only
  4. Translating every sentence

Part 3 – Sanskrit (Q54–Q60)

Q54. ‘रामः पठति’ का अर्थ है:

  1. राम खेलता है
  2. राम पढ़ता है
  3. राम लिखता है
  4. राम सोता है

Q55. ‘फलम्’ शब्द का लिंग है:

  1. पुल्लिंग
  2. स्त्रीलिंग
  3. नपुंसकलिंग
  4. इनमें से कोई नहीं

Q56. ‘गच्छति’ किस धातु से बना है?

  1. पठ्
  2. गम्
  3. लिख्
  4. भू

Q57. ‘विद्या + आलयः’ की संधि से कौन-सा शब्द बनेगा?

  1. विद्यालयः
  2. विद्यलयः
  3. विदालयः
  4. विद्यायलः

Q58. ‘बालकः’ शब्द का बहुवचन है:

  1. बालकम्
  2. बालकौ
  3. बालकाः
  4. बालकेन

Q59. ‘अहम्’ का अर्थ है:

  1. तुम
  2. वह
  3. मैं
  4. हम

Q60. संस्कृत में ‘नमः’ के साथ सामान्यतः किस विभक्ति का प्रयोग होता है?

  1. प्रथमा
  2. द्वितीया
  3. चतुर्थी
  4. सप्तमी

Section D – Science

8 QUESTIONS · 24 MARKS

Q61. The SI unit of force is:

  1. Joule
  2. Newton
  3. Watt
  4. Pascal

Q62. Which part of the human body filters blood and forms urine?

  1. Heart
  2. Lungs
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver

Q63. Which type of energy is possessed by a moving object?

  1. Potential energy
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. Chemical energy
  4. Nuclear energy

Q64. The image formed by a plane mirror is:

  1. Real and inverted
  2. Virtual and erect
  3. Real and enlarged
  4. Virtual and inverted

Q65. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?

  1. Rubber
  2. Plastic
  3. Copper
  4. Wood

Q66. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?

  1. Nucleus
  2. Ribosome
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Vacuole

Q67. Deficiency of Vitamin C causes:

  1. Rickets
  2. Scurvy
  3. Night blindness
  4. Beriberi

Q68. The change of water vapour into liquid water is called:

  1. Evaporation
  2. Condensation
  3. Sublimation
  4. Melting

Section E – Mathematics

16 QUESTIONS · 48 MARKS

Q69. What is the place value of 7 in 5,73,421?

  1. 700
  2. 7,000
  3. 70,000
  4. 7,00,000

Q70. Find the HCF of 36 and 48.

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 18

Q71. What is 35% of 400?

  1. 120
  2. 130
  3. 140
  4. 150

Q72. Simplify: 3/4 + 2/5

  1. 17/20
  2. 23/20
  3. 5/9
  4. 6/20

Q73. A sum of ₹5,000 is invested at 8% simple interest per annum for 2 years. Find the interest.

  1. ₹400
  2. ₹600
  3. ₹800
  4. ₹1,000

Q74. A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹800 and sells it for ₹1,000. Find the profit percentage.

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 30%
  4. 40%

Q75. The ratio of 24 to 36 in its simplest form is:

  1. 2:3
  2. 3:2
  3. 4:5
  4. 5:6

Q76. Find the average of 12, 18, 24, 30 and 36.

  1. 20
  2. 22
  3. 24
  4. 26

Q77. If 5 pens cost ₹60, what is the cost of 8 pens?

  1. ₹84
  2. ₹90
  3. ₹96
  4. ₹100

Q78. Solve: 3x + 7 = 22.

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Q79. The area of a circle with radius 7 cm is (use π = 22/7):

  1. 144 cm²
  2. 154 cm²
  3. 164 cm²
  4. 174 cm²

Q80. The volume of a cube with side 4 cm is:

  1. 16 cm³
  2. 32 cm³
  3. 48 cm³
  4. 64 cm³

Q81. What is the value of (a + b)²?

  1. a² + b²
  2. a² − 2ab + b²
  3. a² + 2ab + b²
  4. a² − b²

Q82. The sum of the interior angles of a triangle is:

  1. 90°
  2. 180°
  3. 270°
  4. 360°

Q83. Convert 0.75 into a fraction in its simplest form.

  1. 1/2
  2. 2/3
  3. 3/4
  4. 4/5

Q84. A train travels 180 km in 3 hours. Its average speed is:

  1. 45 km/h
  2. 50 km/h
  3. 60 km/h
  4. 90 km/h

Section F – Environment & Social Studies

8 QUESTIONS · 24 MARKS

Q85. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Q86. Which is the largest ocean in the world?

  1. Atlantic Ocean
  2. Indian Ocean
  3. Arctic Ocean
  4. Pacific Ocean

Q87. The Revolt of 1857 began at:

  1. Delhi
  2. Meerut
  3. Kanpur
  4. Lucknow

Q88. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. Part II
  2. Part III
  3. Part IV
  4. Part V

Q89. Which gas is primarily responsible for global warming due to human activities?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Carbon dioxide
  3. Helium
  4. Neon

Q90. Which of the following is a major natural disaster caused by movement of tectonic plates?

  1. Drought
  2. Earthquake
  3. Heat wave
  4. Cyclone

Q91. Which body is responsible for local self-government in villages?

  1. Municipal Corporation
  2. Gram Panchayat
  3. Parliament
  4. High Court

Q92. The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is:

  1. Increasing air pollution
  2. Conserving water
  3. Increasing soil erosion
  4. Reducing groundwater

Section G – Teaching Skills

8 QUESTIONS · 24 MARKS

Q93. The most effective teaching method at the primary level is:

  1. Rote memorisation
  2. Learning by doing
  3. Dictation only
  4. Lecture only

Q94. Formative assessment is conducted:

  1. Only at the end of the year
  2. During the teaching-learning process
  3. Only before admission
  4. Only for final grading

Q95. Inclusive education means:

  1. Teaching only gifted students
  2. Teaching all children together with appropriate support
  3. Separating all children with disabilities
  4. Teaching only high achievers

Q96. Which method is most suitable for developing problem-solving skills?

  1. Memorisation
  2. Inquiry-based learning
  3. Repeated copying
  4. Punishment

Q97. A teacher should use teaching-learning materials primarily to:

  1. Decorate the classroom
  2. Make concepts clear and meaningful
  3. Replace all teacher interaction
  4. Keep children busy

Q98. The main purpose of remedial teaching is:

  1. Punishing weak learners
  2. Addressing specific learning difficulties
  3. Giving additional homework to all students
  4. Promoting only gifted learners

Q99. Which of the following is an example of diagnostic assessment?

  1. Annual examination
  2. Identifying specific misconceptions before planning remedial instruction
  3. Awarding prizes
  4. Conducting a sports competition

Q100. In child-centred education, the teacher acts primarily as:

  1. Dictator
  2. Facilitator
  3. Examiner only
  4. Disciplinarian only

Section H – Child Psychology

8 QUESTIONS · 24 MARKS

Q101. According to Piaget, children aged 7–11 years are generally in which stage?

  1. Sensorimotor
  2. Pre-operational
  3. Concrete operational
  4. Formal operational

Q102. Who proposed the theory of the Zone of Proximal Development?

  1. Piaget
  2. Vygotsky
  3. Skinner
  4. Thorndike

Q103. Individual differences among children mean that:

  1. All children learn at the same speed
  2. Children differ in abilities, interests and learning needs
  3. All children have identical intelligence
  4. Children should be taught in exactly the same way

Q104. Which theory is associated with learning through reinforcement?

  1. Classical conditioning
  2. Operant conditioning
  3. Insight learning
  4. Gestalt theory

Q105. According to Erikson, the major psychosocial conflict during primary school years is:

  1. Trust versus mistrust
  2. Autonomy versus shame
  3. Industry versus inferiority
  4. Identity versus role confusion

Q106. Which of the following best supports intrinsic motivation?

  1. Fear of punishment
  2. External pressure
  3. Curiosity and personal interest
  4. Threats

Q107. A child learns most effectively when:

  1. The environment is threatening
  2. The learning environment is supportive and engaging
  3. The child is constantly punished
  4. There is no interaction

Q108. Dyslexia is primarily associated with difficulty in:

  1. Reading
  2. Hearing
  3. Walking
  4. Seeing colours

Section I – Information Technology

4 QUESTIONS · 12 MARKS

Q109. Which of the following is an operating system?

  1. MS Word
  2. Windows
  3. Google Chrome
  4. PowerPoint

Q110. What is the full form of URL?

  1. Uniform Resource Locator
  2. Universal Reading Link
  3. United Resource Language
  4. Uniform Record Link

Q111. Which of the following is an example of an educational digital platform in India?

  1. DIKSHA
  2. Photoshop
  3. Calculator
  4. Notepad

Q112. Which device is used to convert a printed document into digital form?

  1. Printer
  2. Scanner
  3. Speaker
  4. Monitor

Section J – Life Skills, Management & Attitude

8 QUESTIONS · 24 MARKS

Q113. The most important quality of an effective teacher is:

  1. Partiality
  2. Empathy and patience
  3. Anger
  4. Fear

Q114. Which of the following is an example of professional ethics?

  1. Discrimination among students
  2. Maintaining confidentiality of students’ personal information
  3. Favouring relatives
  4. Ignoring school responsibilities

Q115. A teacher should resolve a conflict between students by:

  1. Punishing both immediately
  2. Listening to both sides and encouraging dialogue
  3. Ignoring the matter
  4. Supporting the stronger student

Q116. Democratic leadership in a school encourages:

  1. One-sided decisions
  2. Participation and cooperation
  3. Fear and punishment
  4. Complete silence

Q117. The main role of a teacher as a counsellor is to:

  1. Make every decision for students
  2. Help students understand and address their problems
  3. Punish students
  4. Ignore emotional needs

Q118. Which of the following is a constitutional value?

  1. Discrimination
  2. Equality
  3. Untouchability
  4. Exploitation

Q119. The most appropriate way to motivate students is:

  1. Comparing them negatively
  2. Appreciating effort and encouraging progress
  3. Threatening them
  4. Giving punishment for every mistake

Q120. The main purpose of school management is:

  1. Only maintaining records
  2. Ensuring effective teaching, learning and school development
  3. Only controlling teachers
  4. Conducting examinations only

 

Answer key – All 120 questions

Complete the paper first, then compare your answers.

 

Quick answer key

Q1 A

Q2 B

Q3 C

Q4 B

Q5 C

Q6 B

Q7 C

Q8 A

Q9 C

Q10 B

Q11 B

Q12 C

Q13 B

Q14 A

Q15 C

Q16 B

Q17 C

Q18 C

Q19 B

Q20 B

Q21 D

Q22 B

Q23 C

Q24 B

Q25 B

Q26 C

Q27 B

Q28 A

Q29 B

Q30 C

Q31 B

Q32 C

Q33 B

Q34 B

Q35 A

Q36 C

Q37 B

Q38 B

Q39 C

Q40 A

Q41 B

Q42 C

Q43 B

Q44 C

Q45 B

Q46 C

Q47 B

Q48 C

Q49 B

Q50 C

Q51 B

Q52 B

Q53 B

Q54 C

Q55 C

Q56 B

Q57 A

Q58 C

Q59 B

Q60 B

Q61 B

Q62 C

Q63 B

Q64 C

Q65 C

Q66 B

Q67 B

Q68 C

Q69 C

Q70 B

Q71 C

Q72 B

Q73 C

Q74 A

Q75 A

Q76 C

Q77 C

Q78 C

Q79 B

Q80 D

Q81 C

Q82 B

Q83 C

Q84 C

Q85 C

Q86 B

Q87 B

Q88 C

Q89 B

Q90 B

Q91 B

Q92 B

Q93 B

Q94 B

Q95 B

Q96 B

Q97 B

Q98 B

Q99 B

Q100 B

Q101 C

Q102 B

Q103 B

Q104 B

Q105 C

Q106 C

Q107 A

Q108 B

Q109 A

Q110 A

Q111 B

Q112 B

Q113 B

Q114 B

Q115 B

Q116 B

Q117 B

Q118 B

Q119 B

Q120 B

  1. Self-assessment
Score Performance
300–360 Excellent
250–299 Very good
200–249 Good
150–199 Needs improvement
Below 150 More practice required

These are suggested practice benchmarks, not official qualifying cut-offs.

Important correction for checking: The answer sequence above should be read using this section-wise key as the definitive reference:

  • Q1–10: A, B, C, B, C, B, C, A, C, B
  • Q11–20: B, C, B, A, C, B, C, C, B, B
  • Q21–30: D, B, C, B, B, C, B, A, B, C
  • Q31–40: B, C, B, B, A, C, B, B, C, A
  • Q41–50: B, C, B, C, B, C, B, C, B, C
  • Q51–60: B, B, B, B, C, B, A, C, C, C
  • Q61–70: B, C, B, B, C, C, B, B, B, C
  • Q71–80: C, B, C, B, A, C, C, C, B, D
  • Q81–90: C, B, C, C, C, D, B, C, B, B
  • Q91–100: B, B, B, B, B, B, B, B, B, B
  • Q101–110: C, B, B, B, C, C, B, A, B, A
  • Q111–120: A, B, B, B, B, B, B, B, B, B

My recommendation: Give special attention to GK (25 questions), languages (30 questions), and Mathematics (16 questions), which together account for 71 questions.

Prepare the next mock test only after reviewing the questions you got wrong in this set.

 

Super TET 2026

Super TET Mock Test 1

Primary Teacher Exam

Online Mock Test

www.tetaspirant.com

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